Load Runner Test Sample Test Papaer

Which statement is true about the availability of VuGen?
A. VuGen is only included when performing a full installation.
B. An extra license is required to obtain VuGen.
C. VuGen is available in a full installation, but is only activated if QuickTest Professional is also installed.
D. VuGen is available in a full installation and as a standalone installation.

Answer:D

Which features are provided by WAN Emulation? (Select two.)
A. simulate network latency between Load Generators and tested machines
B. measure network bandwidth utilization of HP LoadRunner hosts during tests
C. measure response time of a transaction during performance tests
D. define maximum bandwidth of a Load Generator
E. monitor uptime of a Load Generator

Answer:AD

During a test run, why is it important to insert Run-time Monitors on Controller and Load Generator machines?
A. to verify that Vuser ramp and Load Generator CPU usage are approximately the same
B. to verify that your test architecture is properly isolated from external disturbance
C. to ensure that test architecture performance is not lower than that of the architecture under test
D. to ensure that your test architecture can generate the desired load without itself becoming a bottleneck

Answer:D

Which goal is an example of a measurable goal?
A. the number of iterations defined in the Run-time Settings (RTS)
B. the identification of the name of the application server
C. the expected transaction response time
D. the number of Load Generators to be used

Answer:C

Which goal is an example of a high level goal?
A. Error rate may not be higher than 10% of all transactions.
B. Update transaction must work in peak time.
C. 500 users must be able to log in at the same time.
D. The Search transaction may not take longer than 3 seconds.

Answer:B

Which default port is used for the communication between MI_Listener and Monitoring Agent?
A. 443
B. 1521
C. 8080
D. 50500

Answer:A

Which HP LoadRunner application or component is used to upload the license?
A. Controller
B. Analysis
C. Virtual User Generator
D. Launcher

Answer:D

Which tool is used to manage and maintain a scenario?
A. VuGen
B. Analysis
C. Controller
D. Load Generator r Generator
D. Launcher

Answer:D

The HP LoadRunner Controller can be connected and configured to collect monitoring data from which product?
A. BPM
B. SiteScope
C. Asset Manager
D. PPM

Answer:A

Why is it important to know how the application under test is being used?
A. to determine if an automated test is possible
B. to define the sizing of the application server
C. to define the number of load tests according to the usage
D. to test real-world conditions as closely as possible

Answer:D


HP0-M49: HP Virtual User Generator 11.x Software

Where should you add a web_reg_save_param function to a script?
A. in the global.h section
B. before the step that contains the dynamic value
C. before the step that generates a response from the server containing the value
D. at the beginning of the action section that contains the dynamic value


Answer:C


When is correlation used?
A. when a recorded script includes a dynamic value (such as a session ID) and cannot replay
B. when you want to take a value and turn it into a variable in order to make your script more realistic
C. when you want to input different users' credentials in your script
D. when you want to check the presence of a string in a response to validate script results


Answer:A


What is the best way to compare two versions of a script?
A. You open a second instance of VuGen and do a line-by-line comparison.
B. You click on Tools > Compare with Script ...
C. You use the test result to compare the scripts.
D. You verify the output.txt of both scripts.


Answer:B


Which default actions are provided by VuGen? (Select three.)
A. vuser_init
B. vuser_run
C. vuser_pause
D. action
E. vuser_pass
F. vuser_end
G. vuser_pending


Answer:A,D,F


What is the best way to use an action from an existing script in a new script?
A. You record the action again in the new script.
B. You copy the code from the existing script action to the new script.
C. You run both Vusers in the scenario with only the relevant actions listed.
D. You import the action into a script directly from the pre-existing script.


Answer:D


Percentage weighting for blocks in Run Logic on Run-time Settings exists for which blocks?
A. only blocks running in sequential
B. only blocks running in random
C. blocks running in random or sequential
D. blocks running unique


Answer:B


Consider a business process with login, business logic and logout. Login and logout need to be iterated only once while business logic will be iterated many times. What is the correct way to record in terms of actions in the script?
A. record the entire business process in action
B. record the entire business process in vuser_init
C. record login logic in vuser_init, business logic in action, logout logic in vuser_end
D. record the entire business process in vuser_end


Answer:C


A customer uses Adobe BlazeDS Server for their web browser to server communications with a Flash Client. Which protocol should be used in VuGen to test this application?
A. HTML
B. Click-n-Script
C. AMF
D. TruClient
E. SOA


Answer:C


In HTML-based and URL-based recording modes, user steps are recorded at different layers. They differ in the layer where the user steps are recorded. Why is the HTML recording name also named as "context sensitive"?
A. because every UI object is recognized in the context of the page/window to which it belongs
B. because the browser cache stores a copy of the page, in the context of which user actions are performed
C. because the playback engine cache stores a copy of the page, in the context of which user actions are performed
D. because context sensitive help suggestions are available in HTML mode only


Answer:C

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QTP Certification HP0-M16 Practice Questions

Set-1
1)'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings
(File->Settings) window.

A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings

2) How many tabs are there in Test Settings (File->Settings) window

A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 8

3) Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window

A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web Settings, Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery

4) 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window

A) Properties
B) Web
C) Resources
D) Recovery

5) The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view

A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation

6) For each object and method in an Expert View statement, a corresponding row exists in the Keyword View.

A) True
B) False
C) There is a problem with the statement.
D) None of above

7) You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.

A) True
B) False

8) You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.

A) True
B) False

9) The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values and insert checkpoints

A) True
B) False

10) A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen information saved with the test.

A) True
B) False

Answers
1) C, 2) A, 3) A, 4) A, 5) b, 6) A, 7) A, 8) A, 9) A, 10) A

Set-2
11) The Information pane provides a list of............. in the test:

A) Semantic errors
B) Syntax errors
C) Common errors
D) Logic errors

12) When we switch from Expert view to the Keyword view, QTP automatically checks for syntax errors in the test and shows them in the information pane.

A) True
B) False

13) If the information pane is not open, QTP automatically opens it in case a syntax error is detected.

A) True
B) False

14) ..................... provides a list of the resources that are specified in your test but cannot be found.

A) Missing pane
B) Missing Resources pane
C) Resources pane
D) Missing Items pane

15) Whenever you open a test or a function library, QTP automatically checks for the availability of specified resources.

A) True
B) False

16) The Data Table does not assists you in parameterizing your test.

A) True
B) False

17) Tabs in the Debug Viewer pane are:

A) Watch, Variables, Debug
B) Watch, Data, Command
C) Watch, Variables, Command
D) View, Variables, Command

18) ............... tab enables you to view the current value of any variable or VBScript expression.

A) Watch
B) View
C) Locate
D) Current

19) The.... tab displays the current value of all variables that have been recognized up to the last step performed in the run session.

A) View
B)Variables
C) Locate
D) Current

20) The .........tab enables you to run a line of script to set or modify the current value of a variable or VBScript object in your test or function library.

A) View
B) Variables
C) Command
D) Current

Answers
11) B, 12) A, 13) A, 14) B, 15) A, 16) B, 17) C, 18) A, 19) B, 20) C

Set -3
21) Panes in QTP can have one of the following states—docked or floating.

A) True
B) False

22) Which of the following statement is True:

A) Quick Test enables you to open and work on one test at a time
B) Quick Test enables you to open and work on two tests at a time
C) Quick Test enables you to open and work on predefined number of tests
at a time
D) Quick Test enables you to open and work on nine test at a time

23) Which of the following statement is True:

A) You can open and work on two function libraries simultaneously
B) You can open and work on multiple function libraries simultaneously
C) You can open and work on nine function libraries simultaneously
D) You can open and work on one function library at a time
24) You can open any function library, regardless of whether it is associated with the currently open test.

A) True
B) False


25) You can work with multiple documents (test, component, or application area, function libraries) using the...... dialog box

A) Panes
B) Display
C) Show
D) Windows

26) quick Test has ..... Built-in toolbars.

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

27) The ......... toolbar contains buttons for recording and running your test.

A) Standard
B) Tools
C) Automation
D) Edit

28) Shortcut Key for opening a new Function Library is:

A) Shift+Alt+N
B) Ctrl+Alt+N
C) Shift+N
D) CRTL+N

29) Shortcut Key for Closing all open Function Libraries in one go.

A) Ctrl+Alt+C
B) Shift+A+C
B)Shift+N
D) None of these

30) shortcut Key for Commenting out the current row, or selected rows

A) Shift+M
B) Ctrl+C
C) Ctrl+M
D) Shift+C


Answers
21) A, 22) A, 23) B, 24) A, 25) D, 26) D, 27) C, 28) A, 29) D, 30) C

Set -4
31) You can manage the test actions and the test or function library steps using the ... menu commands

A) File
B) Edit
C) Automation
D) Tools

32) To expand all the steps in the keyword view which option you would use from the View menu.

A) Expand
B) Expand All
C) Expand Items
D) Expand Rows

33) What is the shortcut key to open a Step Generator.

A) F2
B) F5
C) F6
D) F7

34) Function Definition Generator in found in which menu option.

A) File
B) Tools
C) Insert
D) View

35) The shortcut keys for Record, Stop and Run respectively are

A) F3, F4, F5
B) F4, F3, F5
C) F4, F5, F3
D) F3, F5, F4

36) What is the shortcut key for opening an Object Repository.

A) Alt+R
B) Shift+R
C) Ctrl+R
D) Shift+O+R

37) Shortcut key to Insert/Remove a breakpoint is

A) F9
B) F8
C) Ctrl+b
D) Shift+b

38) .........runs only the current line of the script. If the current line calls a method, the method is displayed in the view but is not
performed.

A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till

39) .........runs only the current line of the script. When the current line calls a method, the method is performed in its entirety, but is not displayed in the view.

A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till
40) What is the shortcut key to Clear all Breakpoints

A) Ctrl+Shift+F9
B) Shift+Ctrl+F9
C) Alt+Shift+F9
D) Alt+Ctrl+F9


Answers
31) B, 32) B, 33) D, 34) C, 35) A, 36) C, 37) A, 38) C, 39) A, 40) A

Set-5
41) Object Spy can be found in ........menu.

A) Tool
B) Tools
C) Task
D) Tasks

42) ............ displays the open documents side-by-side.

A) Tile Vertically
B) Tile Horizontally
C) Cascade
D) Tile Cascade

43) For opening the QuickTest Professional Help we can use.......

A) F3
B) F5
C) F1
D) F2
44) If QTP cannot find any object that matches the description, or if it finds more than one object that matches, QuickTest may use the............mechanism to identify the object.

A) Ordinal Identifier
B) Index Identifier
C) Smart Identification
D) Assistive Identification

45) You can configure the ........, ............ and ............ properties that QuickTest uses to record descriptions of the objects in your application

A) mandatory, assistive, and ordinal identifier
B) mandatory, required, and ordinal identifier
C) smart, assistive, and ordinal identifier
D) Index, assistive, and ordinal identifier

46) The .......... property set for each test object is created and maintained by QuickTest.

A) Run-Time Object
B) Test Object
C) Smart Identification Object
D) Assistive Object

47)You can access and perform ......... methods using the Object property.

A) Run-Time Object
B) Test Object
C) Smart Identification Object
D) Assistive Object

48) You can view or modify the test object property values that are stored with your test in the .........

A) Information Pane
B) Data Table
C) Information Pane & Data Table Both
D) Object Properties & Object Repository dialog box.

49) You can retrieve or modify property values of the test object during the run session by adding ..........statements in the Keyword View or Expert View.

A) GetROProperty & SetROProperty
B) GetTOProperty & SetTOProperty
C) GetTOProperty & SetROProperty
D) GetROProperty & SetTOProperty

50) If the available test object methods or properties for an object do not provide the functionality you need, you can access ..............of any run-time object using the Object property.

A) The internal methods and properties
B) The mandatory methods and properties
C) The selective methods and properties
D) The assistive methods and properties


Answers
41) B, 42) A, 43) C, 44) C, 45) A, 46) B, 47) A, 48) D, 49) B, 50) A

Set-6
51) Using the Object Spy, you can view

A) the run-time or test object properties and methods of any object in an open application.
B) the run-time or test object properties of any object in an open application.
C) the test object properties and methods of any object in an open  application.
D) the run-time object properties and methods of any object in an open application.

52) There are .........object type filters in Object spy dialog box.

A) Two
B)Three
C) Four
D) Five
53) In the Object Spy window, in the Properties Tab

A) Copying of Properties and its values is possible with CTRL+C
B) Copying of Properties and its values is possible by right clicking on it and choosing copy.
C) Copying of Properties and its values is possible with both A) and B) methods
D) Copying of Properties and its values is possible is not possible

54) In the Object Spy window, in the methods Tab

A) Copying of Methods is possible with CTRL+C
B) Copying of Methods is possible by right clicking on it and choosing copy.
C) Copying of Methods is possible with both A) and B) methods
D) Copying of Methods is possible is not possible

55) Object Spy dialog box

A) Can be resized
B) Cannot be resized

56) .............. are the highest level of the test hierarchy in the
Keyword view.

A) Tests
B) Steps
C) Call to Actions
D) Actions

57) You can copy and paste or drag and drop actions to move them to a different location within a test

A) True
B) False

58) You can print the contents of the Keyword View to your Windows default printer (and even preview the contents prior to printing).

A) True
B) False

59) In the Keyword View, you can also view properties for items such as checkpoints.

A) True
B) False

60) In the step Browser > Page > Edit > Set "Sachin", identify container object(s)

A) Browser
B) Edit
C) Page
D) Both Browser & Page

Answers
51) A, 52) A, 53) A, 54) A, 55) A, 56) D, 57) A, 58) A, 59) A, 60) D

Set-7
61) You can use the Keyword View to add a step ..........in your test.

A) at the end
B) below the currently selected step
C) at the beginning
D) at anypoint

62) The Documentation cell is .............

A) Read-only
B) Write-only
C) Read and Write
D) Read, write & execute


63) An Item column can be any of the following:

A) A test object
B) A statement like Dim
C) A step generated by step generator
D) All of above

64) The Operation cell in the keyword view specifies the operation to be performed on the item listed in the ........... column.

A) Operation
B) Documentation
C) Item
D) Value

65) Even if the Item column in the Keyword View is displayed to the right of the Operation column, you must still first select an item to view the list of available operations in the Operation column.

A) True
B) False

66) The Value cell in the keyword view can contain........ value

A) Constant
B) Parameter
C) Both A) & B)
D) None of these

67)The ............... enables you to encode your passwords and place secure values into the Data Table.

A) Password Encoder
B) Password Decoder
C) Password Encode
D) Password Decode

68) You can also encrypt strings in Data Table cells using the ......... option in the Data Table menu.

A) Decrypt
B) Encrypt
C) Encrypt Code
D) Decrypt Code

69) In addition to adding standard statement steps to your test using the Keyword View, you can also insert

A) Checkpoint step
B) Output value step
C) Comment step
D) All of above

70) The correct syntax of the conditiona statement starting with Do is.....

A) Do...While
B) Do...Until
C) Do...Next
D) Both A) and B)


Answers
61) D, 62) A, 63) D, 64) C, 65) A, 66) C, 67) A, 68) B, 69) D, 70) D

Set-8
71) Quick Test processes comments when it runs a test.

A) True
B) False

72) Press ..... to add a new step below the currently selected step.

A) F8
B) Shift + A
C) F0
D) Shift + A + Q

73) While working with the Keyword View, you can ...... steps to move them to a different location in a test or in an action

A) Copy and Paste
B) Cut and Paste
C) Drag and drop
D) Both A) and C)
74) You can specify the order in which the columns are displayed in the
Keyword view.

A) True
B) False

75) You can view ....... while working with keyword view.

A) object properties
B) action properties
C) action call properties
D) checkpoint properties
E) Output value properties
F) None of the above
G) All of above


76) You cannot manage some aspects of a local object repository using the Quick Test Object Repository automation object model..

A) True
B) False

77) For each action, you can use a combination of objects from your local and shared object repositories.

A) True
B) False

78) QuickTest adds all new objects to the local object repository even if one or more shared object repositories are already associated with the action assuming that an object with the same description does not already exist in one of the associated shared object repositories..

A) True
B) False

79) If a child object is added to a local object repository, and its parents are in a shared object repository, then you have to manually drag and drop its parent objects from shared object repository to local object repository.

A) True
B) False

80) The ....... is not accessible as a separate file

A) local object repository
B) shared object repository
C) Both
D) None

Answers
71) B, 72) A, 73) D, 74) A, 75) G, 76) B, 77) A, 78) A, 79) B, 80) A

Set -9
81) In the Object Repository window:.

A) Local objects are editable (black)
B) Shared objects are in read-only format (gray)
C) Local objects are in read-only format (gray)
D) Shared objects are editable (black)

82) Mark true statement(s):.

A) You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object Repository window.
B) You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository Manager
C) You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository window
D) You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object Repository Manager

83) You can modify an object stored in a shared object repository.

A) using the Object Repository Manager
B) using the Object Repository window
C) you can copy it to the local object repository and then modify its properties
D) you cannot modify properties of objects stored in Shared object repository

84) If an object is contained in both local and shared repositories then, during a run session.

A) QuickTest will use the object in the local object repository
B) QuickTest will use the object in the Shared object repository
C) There will be a conflict
D) QuickTest will use Descriptive Programming

85) When you copy an object to the local object repository

A) its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
B) its parent objects are not copied to the local object repository
C) You have to manually copy its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
D) You have to manually drag and drop its parent objects

86) For tests, you can also view test object properties and property values for objects in the Active Screen, regardless of whether the objects are stored in the object repository.

A) True
B) False

87) Object Properties window differs for objects stored in Shared and Local object repository.

A) True
B) False

88) You can rename objects in the shared object repository using the Object Repository Manager

A) True
B) False, you cannot rename objects in shared object repository

89) When you modify the name of an object in the local object repository, the name is automatically
updated in ....... for all occurrences of the object..

A) in the Keyword View
B) in the Expert View
C) Both Keyword and Expert View
D) Changing name of an object doest not effect keyword or expert view

90) When you modify the name of an object in a shared repository, the name is automatically updated in all tests open on the same computer that use the object repository as soon as you make the change, even if you have not yet saved the object repository with your changes.

A) True
B) False

Answers
81) A,B, 82) C,D, 83) A,C, 84) A, 85) A, 86) A, 87) A, 88) A, 89) C, 90) A

Set-10

91) An ........ assigns a numerical value to a test object that indicates its order or location relative to other objects with an otherwise identical description (objects that have the same values for all properties)

A) Index identifier.
B) ordinal identifier.
C) SMART ID identifier.
D) original identifier.

92) You can add an object to the local object repository only if that object does not already exist in a shared object repository that is associated with the action. If an object already exists in an associated shared object repository, you can add it to the local object repository using the ........ option.

A) Copy from Shared Repository
B) Copy from Shared Object Repository
C) Copy to Local
D) Copy to Local repository

93) You can copy, paste, and move objects in the local object repository using the Object Repository window, and copy, paste, and move objects both within a shared object repository and between shared object repositories using the Object Repository Manager. But you cannot copy objects from a shared object repository to the local object repository to modify them locally

A) True
B) False

94) At the time of copying, pasting and moving objects, you cannot move an object to any of its descendants.

A) True
B) False

95) When you remove a step from your test, its corresponding object is also removed from the object repository

A) True
B) False

96) You can use the Find and Replace dialog box to replace property or object names.
A) True
B) False

97) The Object Repository window is ...... during record and run sessions

A) read-only
B) read-write only
C) read-write and enable
D) None of above

98) In the Associated Repositories tab of the Action Properties dialog box, the ......object repository is always listed first and cannot be moved down the priority list or deleted.

A) local
B) shared
C) Both
D) None

99) In the Associated Repositories tab of the Action Properties dialog box, although we can order the object repositories according to our choice except the fact that Shared Repository remains the first one and cannot be removed.

A) True
B) False

100) If your object repositories are stored in the file system and you want other users or Mercury products to be able to run this action on other computers, you should set the file path as a

A) Absolute path
B) relative path
C) both
D) None of above

Answers
91) B, 92) C, 93) B, 94) A, 95) B, 96) B, 97) A, 98) A, 99) B, 100) B

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Certifications in Testing

Testing Certifications Certified Software Test Professional (CSTP) certification CSTE-Certified Software Test Engineer ISTQB(International Testing Qualifications Board) ISEB( Information Systems Examinations Board) Certified Software Quality Analyst (CSQA) QTP Certifications QTP Certification QTP Certification HP0-M16 Practice Questions. Certification Preparation for HP Quick Test Professional Implementing HP Quality Center Software Loadrunner Certifications HP LoadRunner Certification LoadRunner Certification Sample Questions Loadrunner certification sample questions-2 Performance Testing using HP LoadRunner Software Testing Management Process Certifications Certified Software Process Engineer Certified Quantitative Software Process Engineer Certified Manager of Software Quality (CMSQ) Certified Manager of Software Testing (CMST) Certified Software Project Manager (CSPM) “Software Testing” By IBM Certifications BM Certified Solution Designer - Rational Functional Tester for Java

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Bug life cycle

Introduction:

Bug can be defined as the abnormal behavior of the software. No software exists without a bug. The elimination of bugs from the software depends upon the efficiency of testing done on the software. A bug is a specific concern about the quality of the Application under Test (AUT).

Bug Life Cycle:

In software development process, the bug has a life cycle. The bug should go through the life cycle to be closed. A specific life cycle ensures that the process is standardized. The bug attains different states in the life cycle. The life cycle of the bug can be shown diagrammatically as follows:

The different states of a bug can be summarized as follows:

1. New
2. Open
3. Assign
4. Test
5. Verified
6. Deferred
7. Reopened
8. Duplicate
9. Rejected and
10. Closed

Description of Various Stages:

1. New: When the bug is posted for the first time, its state will be “NEW”. This means that the bug is not yet approved.

2. Open: After a tester has posted a bug, the lead of the tester approves that the bug is genuine and he changes the state as “OPEN”.

3. Assign: Once the lead changes the state as “OPEN”, he assigns the bug to corresponding developer or developer team. The state of the bug now is changed to “ASSIGN”.

4. Test: Once the developer fixes the bug, he has to assign the bug to the testing team for next round of testing. Before he releases the software with bug fixed, he changes the state of bug to “TEST”. It specifies that the bug has been fixed and is released to testing team.

5. Deferred: The bug, changed to deferred state means the bug is expected to be fixed in next releases. The reasons for changing the bug to this state have many factors. Some of them are priority of the bug may be low, lack of time for the release or the bug may not have major effect on the software.

6. Rejected: If the developer feels that the bug is not genuine, he rejects the bug. Then the state of the bug is changed to “REJECTED”.

7. Duplicate: If the bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug, then one bug status is changed to “DUPLICATE”.

8. Verified: Once the bug is fixed and the status is changed to “TEST”, the tester tests the bug. If the bug is not present in the software, he approves that the bug is fixed and changes the status to “VERIFIED”.

9. Reopened: If the bug still exists even after the bug is fixed by the developer, the tester changes the status to “REOPENED”. The bug traverses the life cycle once again.

10. Closed: Once the bug is fixed, it is tested by the tester. If the tester feels that the bug no longer exists in the software, he changes the status of the bug to “CLOSED”. This state means that the bug is fixed, tested and approved.

While defect prevention is much more effective and efficient in reducing the number of defects, most organization conducts defect discovery and removal. Discovering and removing defects is an expensive and inefficient process. It is much more efficient for an organization to conduct activities that prevent defects.
Guidelines on deciding the Severity of Bug:

Indicate the impact each defect has on testing efforts or users and administrators of the application under test. This information is used by developers and management as the basis for assigning priority of work on defects.

A sample guideline for assignment of Priority Levels during the product test phase includes:

• Critical / Show Stopper: An item that prevents further testing of the product or function under test can be classified as Critical Bug. No workaround is possible for such bugs. Examples of this include a missing menu option or security permission required to access a function under test.
• Major / High: A defect that does not function as expected/designed or cause other functionality to fail to meet requirements can be classified as Major Bug. The workaround can be provided for such bugs. Examples of this include inaccurate calculations; the wrong field being updated, etc.,
• Average / Medium: The defects which do not conform to standards and conventions can be classified as Medium Bugs. Easy workarounds exists to achieve functionality objectives. Examples include matching visual and text links which lead to different end points.
• Minor / Low: Cosmetic defects which does not affect the functionality of the system can be classified as Minor Bugs.

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Interview Question and Answers

1.    Differentiate between QA and QC?

QA:

It is process oriented

It involve in entire process of software developement.

Prevention oriented.

QC:

It is product oriented.

Work to examine the quality of product.

Deduction oriented.

2.    What is a bug?

A computer bug is an error, flaw, mistake, failure, or fault in a computer program that prevents it from working correctly or produces an incorrect result.

3.    What is a test case?

Test case is set of input values, execution preconditions, expected results and execution Post conditions, developed for a particular objective or test conditons, such as to exercise a paticular program path or to verify compliance with a specific requirement.

4.    What is the purpose of test plan in your project?

Test plan document is prepared by the test lead,it contains the contents like introduction,objectives,test stratergy,scope,test items,program modules user

procedures,features to be tested features not to tested approach,pass or fail criteria,testing process,test deliverables,testing,tasks,responsibilities,resources,schedu

i.e., environmental requirements, risks & contingencies, change management procedures, plan approvals, etc., all these things help a test manager undersatnd the testing he should do & What he should follow for testing that particular project.

5.    When the relationships occur between tester and developer?

Developer is the one who sends the application to the tester by doing all the necessary code in the application and sends the marshal id to the tester.The tester is the one who gives all the input/output and checks whether he is getting reqd output or not.A developer is the one who works on inside interfacing where as the tester is the one who works on outside interfacing

6.    When testing will starts in a project?

The testing is not getting started after the coding.after release the build the testers perform the smoke test.smoke test is the first test which is done by the testing team.this is according to the testing team.but, before the releasing of a build the developers will perform the unit testing.

7.    If a bug has high severity then usually that is treated as high priority,then why do priority given by testengineers/project managers and severity given by testers?

High severity bugs affects the end users ....testers tests an application with the users point of view, hence it is given as high severity.High priority is given to the bugs which affects the production.Project managers assign a high priority based on production point of view.

8.    What is the difference between functional testing and regression testing?

Functional testing is a testing process where we test the functionality/behaviour of each functional component of the application...i.e.minimize button,transfer button,links etc.i.e we check what is each component doing in that application...

Regression testing is the testing the behaviour of the application of the unchanged areas when there is a change in the build.i.e we chk whether the changed requirement has altered the behaviour of the unchanged areas.the impacted area may be the whole of the application or some part of the application...

9.    Do you know about integration testing, how do u integrate diff modules?

Integration testing means testing an application to verify the data flows between the module.for example, when you are testing a bank application ,in account balence it shows the

100$as the available balence.but in database it shows the 120$. Main thing is "integration done by the developers and integration testing done by the testers"

10. Do you know about configuration management tool, what is the purpose of maintaining all the documents in configuration management tool?

·         It is focused primarily on maintaining the file changes in the history.

·         Documents are subjected to change for ex: consider the Test case document.

·         Initially you draft the Test cases document and place it in Version control tool (Visual Source Safe for ex).Then you send it for Peer Review .They will provide some comments and that document will be saved in VSS again.Similary the document undergoes changes and all the changes history will be maintained in Version control.

·         It helps in referring to the previous version of a document.

·         Also one person can work on a document (by checking out) at a time.

·         Also it keeps track who has done the changes, time and date.

·         Generally all the Test Plan, Test cases, Automation design docs are placed in VSS.

·         Proper access rights needs to be given so that the documents dont get deleted or modified.

11. How you test database and explain the procedure?

Database Testing is purely done based on the requirements. You may generalize a few features but they won't be complete. In general we look at

·         Data Correctness (Defaults)

·         Data Storage/Retrieval

·         Database Connectivity (across multiple platforms)

·         Database Indexing

·         Data Integrity

·         Data Security

12. Suppose if you press a link in yahooshopping site in leads to some other company website? How to test if any problem in linking from one site to another site?

·         First i will check whether the mouse cusor is turning into hand icon or not?

·         I will check the link is highlingting when i place the curosr on the link or not?

·         The site is opening or not?

·         if the site is opening then i will check is it opening in another window or the same window that the link itself exitst(to check userfriendly ness of the link)

·         How fast that website is opening?

·         Is the correct site is opening according to the link?

·         All the items in the site are opeing or not?

·         All other sub links are opening or not?

13. What are the contents of FRS?

F → Function Behaviours

R → Requirements (Outputs) of the System, that is defined.

S → Specification (How, What, When, Where, and Way it behavior's.

FRS → Function Requirement Specification.

 This is a Document which contains the Functional behavior of the system or a feature. This document is also known as EBS External Behaviour Specification - Document. Or EFS (External Function Specification).

14. what is meant by Priority nad severity?

Priority means "Importance of the defect w.r.t cutomer requirement"

Severity means "Seriousness of the defect w.r.t functionality"

15. What is meant by Priority and severity?

Severity:  

·         This is assigned by the Test Engineer

·         This is to say how badly the devation that is occuring is affecting the other modules of the build or release.

Priority:

·         This is assigned by the Developer.

·         This is to say how soon the bug as to be fixed in the main code, so that it pass the basic requirement.

Eg. The code is to generate some values with some vaild input conditions. The priority will be assigned so based on the following conditions:

·         It is not accepting any value

·         It is accepting value but output is in non-defined format (say Unicode Characters).

A good example i used some unicode characters to generate a left defined arrow, it displayed correctly but after saving changes it gave some address value from the stack of this server. For more information mail me i will let you know.

16. Give me some example for high severity and low priority defect?

If suppose the title of the particular concern is not spelled corectly,it would give a negative impact.eg ICICC is spelled as a tittle for the project of the concern ICICI.then it is a high severity,low priority defect.

17. What is basis for testcase review?

The main basis for the test case review is

·         Testing techniques oriented review

·         Requirements oriented review

·         Defects oriented review.

18. What are the contents of SRS documents?

Software Requirements Specifications and Functional Requirements Specifications.

19. What is difference between the Web application testing and Client Server testing?

Testing the application in intranet (withoutbrowser) is an example for client -server.(The company firewalls for the server are not open to outside world. Outside people cannot access the application.)So there will be limited number of people using that application.

Testing an application in internet (using browser) is called webtesting. The application which is accessible by numerous numbers around the world (World Wide Web.)

So testing web application, apart from the above said two testings there are many other testings to be done depending on the type of web application we are testing.

If it is a secured application (like banking site- we go for security testing etc.)

If it is a ecommerce testing application we go for Usability etc., Testing.

20. Explain your web application archtechture?

Web application is tested in 3 phases

·         Web tier testing --> browser compatibility 

·         Middle tier testing --> functionality, security

·         Data base tier testing --> database integrity, contents

21. Suppose the product/application has to deliver to client at 5.00PM,At that time you or your team member caught a high severity defect at 3PM.(Remember defect is high severity)But the client is cannot wait for long time.You should deliver the product at 5.00Pm exactly.then what is the procedure you follow?

The bug is high severity only so we send the application to the client and find out the severity is preyority or not. if its preyority then we ask him to wait.

Here we found defects/bugs in the last minute of the deliveryor realese date

Then we have two options

·         Explain the situation to client and ask some more time to fix the bug.

·         If the client is not ready to give some time then analyze the impact of defect/bug and try to find    workarounds for the defect and mention these issues   in the release notes as known issues or known   limitations or known bugs.  Here the workaround means remeady process to be followed to overcome the defect effect.

·         Normally this known issues or known limitations(defects) will be fixed in next version or next release of the  software 

22. Give me examples for high priority and low severity defects?

Suppose in one banking application there is one module ATM Facility. In that ATM facility when ever we are dipositing/withdrawing money it is not showing any conformation message but actually at the back end it is happening properly with out any mistake means only missing of message. In this case as it is happenig properly so there is nothing wrong with the application but as end user is not getting any conformation message so he/she will be confuse for this. So we can consider this issue as HIGH Priority but LOW Severity defects..

23. Explain about Bug life cycle?

·         Tester->

·         Open defect->

·         Send to developer->

·         If accepted moves to step5 else sends the bug to tester gain fixed by developer ->

·         Regression testing->

·         No problem inbuilt and signoff ->

·         If problem in built reopen the issue send to step3

24. How can you report the defect using excel sheet?

To report the defect using excel sheet mention the following

• The Feature that been effected.
• Test Case ID (Which fail you can even mention any other which are dependency on this bug)
• Actual Behavior
• Expected Behavior as mentioned in Test Case or EFS or EBS or SRS  document with section
• Your Test Setup used during Testing
• Steps to Re-Produce the bug
• Additional Info
• Attach a Screen Shot if it is a GUI bug
• Which other features it is blocking because of this bug that you are unable to execute the test cases.

How much time you took to execute that test case or follow that specific TC which leaded to bug

25. If you have executed 100 test cases ,every test case passed but apart from these testcase you found some defect for which testcase is not prepared,thwn how you can report the bug?

While reporting this bug into bugtracking tool you will generate the testcase imean put the steps to reproduce the bug.

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